Why does the American spelling of Dinétah come out to ~/dʌɪntɑetʌ/ ~Daintaita?
I'm not entirely sure how it came out that way -- I have an inhouse translator that I ran it through based on the rules I have and that's what it spit out. I'd probably change it to
Dɥintiiɋ if I were to re-do it.
What is the nature of the Non-State Domestic Political Entities?
Am I correct in reading that the Cherokee and Muskogee NSDPEs are going to be expanded in the future, given that they are adjacent to US Government Trust territories under the Returned Lands Transitional Authority?
Non-State Domestic Political Entities are... think of them as say, a U.S. State that is not designated as a state, but is also not independent. It exists as a level below the federal government, but one that is clearly subservient to the federal government. In theory the independent entities aren't but... you know how those things go.
That is the correct reading. The United States has been actively returning land to these nations, which themselves are relatively recent. They are quite different from the western entities because they were actually re-established under the revolutionary government as a bid to establish political control across the southeast.
Is philadelphic artificial like the Mormon Alphabet, or did it diverge naturally?
It's a mixture. It is artificial in the sense that it was Benjamin Franklin's proposal. Numerous reforms over the years have continued to lead to its divergence from Franklin's proposal. The language itself was first adopted officially in the colonial era by the City of Philadelphia for the public school systems. The immediate post-Revolution era saw the (at the time) spelling reform adopted by the whole Commonwealth of Pennsylvania. It was not until the 1830s that an eye towards national reform was undertaken. By this point, the spelling reform was beginning to diverge from English, but I would not yet call it a language in its own right. The "Philadelphia System" was adopted nationally in all public schools by the 1830s and 1840s, and the move from spelling to reform to language took place gradually in the thirty or so years after the 1830s. It wasn't until the Anglo-American War (the second one), that an effort was made to transition it from a spelling reform, to a "national language," to differentiate themselves from the United Kingdom. Each subsequent decade (and the conquest of the Caribbean and normalisation of the Hispanic influence in the country), continued to drift the language further and further.
Despite this, English and Philadelphic remain
mostly mutually intelligable when spoken.
Unserious question: is there a CosmicAshverse where both the Soviet Union of OFC and the Russian Empire of TFS exist alongside one another after a stalemate Russian Revolution? One is based in Moscow and administers much of European Russia, the other in St Petersburg with Siberian (and maybe Alaskan) territories (or is based in Juneau/ Anchorage and administers Alaska exclusively)?
Hahaha now that would be a funny one. I might do a quick one off map with that premise one day. Maybe over the solstice holiday.
I don't think that the Russian Empire would be as liberal as it is in TFS if they were stuck in a stalemate with communism
This is also extremely true.
How did Argentina avoid the OTL economic trouble? Also, how much immigration is there from the US to New England?
Argentina was able to avoid it's OTL pitfalls due to a different economic growth profile overall. Brazil never seriously challenged Argentina's economic domination of South America, and there was never a retreat of European capital from the country. The decline of the United States on the world stage led Argentina to help fill the gap of industrial power, helping to compound the growth the country was experiencing, and to power it through the middle income trap it otherwise could have been caught in.
There is little immigration from the United States to New England. Historically it has been restricted, and in general, it's very hard to emigrate from the United States.
What's the story behind the Kingdom of Swabia? Was it just a continuation of the Kingdom of Württemberg or was it a puppet state carved out for one of Napoleon's generals? If that was the case then I suppose that would imply that Napoleon's close ally Frederick of Württemberg must have gotten on his bad side (despite his daughter marrying Jerome Bonaparte). Also, why was it divided back into the Kingdom of Württemberg and the Grand Duchy of Baden after the Congress of Frankfurt?
Also, I noticed that the Grand Duchy of Oldenburg was not featured on the 1814 or the 1932 maps, but it exists in the modern day. Was it purely a post-GCW creation or was it recreated from Westphalian land sometime after the Congress and then annexed by the Kingdom of Germania before regaining independence after the great war?
Swabia was a puppet state carved out for a Napoleonic general. I do hope to go into the progress of the Napoleanic Wars in 2023 to go into more detail, but yes - Frederick of Württemberg made an attempt to switch to the coalition when France found itself briefly on the back foot in the mid 1800s. It was consolidated and handed off to form a loyal puppet state - which is also why it was broken up during the Congress.
As for Oldenburg - It was disestablished after its annexation by the French, and only re-gained independence during the collapse of Westphalia in 1856. Oldenburg regained its independence during this period, until it was annexed again by the French during the GCW. The main goal of the victorious powers after the GCW was to create a lasting peace in Europe that removed all advantages France would have - and part of that is introducing a system to try and preserve the pre-war status quo as much as possible, while still creating states strong enough to fight against and insurgent France (hence why the Rhineland got shotgun married into Prussia).
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Sorry for the delay in responding everyone! The holiday season has been hectic and work has picked up significantly for me in recent weeks.
